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Engine HP and rear wheel HP ratio?

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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 04:49 AM
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sparky3Z
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Question Engine HP and rear wheel HP ratio?

For the 350Z, is there a rough rule of the ratio of engine HP to rear wheel HP? In other words, if your engine creates 287 HP, how much rear wheel HP would there likely be?
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 05:10 AM
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yep... you are talking about "drivetrain loss" and in our cars it's roughly 15%. So, if you have 287 hp at the crank, you are about 243 hp at the rear wheels.

Likewise, when you makes mods and go dyno the car, the same 15% applies... so if you make 255 rwhp, that is about 293 crank hp.

Cheers,

PeteH
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 05:12 AM
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Everyone has been using around 17% drive train loss. So 287HP minus 17% equals 238 rwhp. This has been the average of what most people are getting on the dyno stock. Some have dynoed as low as the 220's and a few have dynoed 240's so 17% is IMO a more inclusive percentage.

Jeff

Last edited by jak; Mar 25, 2004 at 05:16 AM.
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 05:42 AM
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Thanks Audito350Z and jak! Very clear.
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 06:39 AM
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I concur with 17% loss
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 07:45 AM
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I too would use 17%. Assuming the 17% drivetrain loss, you do NOT multiply the RWHP * 1.17 to get back to crank HP!

You would divide RWHP by 0.83.
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 09:26 AM
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I don't think 17% is likely, given the persistent effort by manufacturers to improve efficiency, and because the rule-of-thumb for a 'front-engine-rear-drive' layout is 15% drivetrain loss. I suspect 15% is more accurate, and our cars actually have about 280hp.
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Old Mar 25, 2004 | 09:45 AM
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The fact of the matter is you have no idea how much HP we have at the motor because you have never put a VQ35DE on an engine dyno. You can't calculate drivetrain loss as a percentage over a span of more than one vehicle. Sorry. You just have what you have. None of us have the same thing and none of us have the same drivetrain loss either.
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